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Old 07-16-2007, 09:55 AM  
D
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ultra100 View Post
Hmm....not sure about that man. The odds of that happening are every time 1:37. Roullete mashice does not have memory.
right.

At the start of the roll, the chance of hitting any number on the table is 1: 37...

But to say "this table will hit the same number on the first, second, fifth, and sixth rolls" starting now... those odds are 1: 50653.

Once x is defined, the chance for x to be hit on any subsequent roll is 1/37.... so for x (in this case, x = 3) to be hit on predefined rolls:

x (roll that defines x), then x w y z x x

The odds are:

1/1, then 1/37 1/1 1/1 1/1 1/37 1/37

Multiply them together, and you get 1:50653.

Been awhile since I've taken a probability class, so maybe I missed something, but understand I'm working from the perspective of the entire set of numbers... not an individual roll - which is always 1/37 on any number, as you said.
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Last edited by D; 07-16-2007 at 09:57 AM..
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