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Old 01-26-2011, 01:43 PM  
The Demon
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Quote:
Originally Posted by wig View Post
No true Scotsman

In your preferred text, more specifically for example Numbers 31:7-18, you can't possibly argue that Moses et al did not use their higher being to their own benefit while simultaneously rationalizing away what any reasonable person would consider immoral behavior.

It starts out with... Numbers 31:7 "They fought against Midian, as the LORD commanded Moses, and killed every man."

Is Moses an example of a NON truly religious monotheist? Or do you take this as allegory while accepting literally the Flood story?
There are things in the Torah that have explanations in separate books, and there are things, events that you would take literally. The flood is a literal event, and one that has been researched for a while. Evidence exists that it did in fact happen. The popular belief was that it was a volcano and then a tsunami... Do I know why Moses did what he did? Does the Torah specifically state that God commanded Moses to destroy the Midianites because of what they were doing? I think so but that's something I'd have to ask a Rabbi. I can't give you an answer until then but I doubt it's the same thing as modern rationalizations using God. Find me one and I can give you an explanation of that rule/law/rationalization.
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