I'm curious as to the legal precedent that has been set by this case.
Does this mean that a 30 year old man can get the same relatively light sentence if the complainant happens to be a 15-year old "gregarious young lady who is a member of a dance troupe and was sexually experienced"? Particularly if "the experience was short-lived, required no coercion, she touched him first and she was not seduced or corrupted by the experience"?
Given that the law should be enforced fairly and equally, regardless of the sex of the offender, the decision handed down may be used in future cases to reduce the sentence of true sexual predators, based on the history of the complainant.
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