Quote:
Originally Posted by VGeorgie
There is no requirement by a US-based merchant to use CVV2 validation, and is up to the merchant and the specific authorization gateway whether or not to require it. The lack of the number, or an incorrect number, can be used as a scoring mechanism. If other aspects of the transaction show a valid customer, not having a CVV2 number may indeed be permitted. It's all part of risk management, which at the end of the day is CCBill's business, just as it is with any company that deals with the flow of money.
Paul regularly uses his card for test transactions, so CCBill's own pre-auth screening will treat his card differently than yours.
The fact that it may have been required on some transactions through your site and not others only points to CCBill's likely use of a variety of gateways and acquiring banks, plus its own internal scoring mechanism (which is their trade secret).
Has it occurred to you that CCBill have even relaxed the banking rules for your site as a favor to you to reduce the declines? Now you're hitting them over the head with what you see as a discrepancy. Would you prefer their setting your banking rules to require a valid CVV2 on EVERY transaction for your site? Ask them; that could probably be arranged if you insist on it.
(How do I know all of this? Sorry, I'm not part of some vast CCBill conspiracy. It's only because I have my own merchant account, and I've chosen to educate myself about these issues.)
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So just curious..another question...maybe I ask too many questions...LOL
1. How would you know intimately how Paul K's card will be treated differently??
and if Paul K's card is treated so differently than the average card...why would anyone want it used in testing??
This is not a card question this is a "FORM" question...the man stated he could not submit a form without it being filled out....thats not me beating him over the head...he said that before he could submit the form he was prompted to "COMPLETE" the form
I have proven this to be a contradiction.... I simply ask for clarity on the contradiction!
I have an approval today from a form submission with an incomplete field and bogus info (hello what happened to scrub)
I also have a pre auth decline with a form submitted with a bogus name and blank field
I also have a "you currently have a subscription and are unable to sign up" with BOGUS NAME and incomplete form
Then according to PAUL when he submitted on my same form ....The form demanded he complete form before it was submitted...
There should not be any two ways about it. SHOULD THE FORM BE SUBMITTED by ccbill OR NOT IF ITS INCOMPLETE IS THE QUESTION
If the form must be completed before submitting, why do I have approvals on incomplete forms?
If the form must not be completed before submitting, why would Paul state that his form would not submit without it being completed.
Look the onus is not on me..I have clearly and articulately laid out a very very disturbing discrepancy that remains unanswered logically!
If I am confused than explain it slowly and carefully so it makes sense why an incomplete join form with bogus information entered is yielding 4 different results?
Go ahead assemble the team...get the vice president, get the director, I don't care just give me a sensible explanation...that is my right to have this answered properly.
Will the real join form submission protocol step up and identify itself.
Nothing I have stated is an accusation and all of you know it...it is a valid question that deserves a straight answer