British webmasters..Breaking news on Sky news.... I have a question about UK Police...
So the report on Sky news, that I've been monitoring all day, says that "Man Shot By Police 'Did Not Open Fire". So what I'm asking here is, is it required that the British Police wait to be shot at first, and possibly killed, PRIOR to opening fire on someone with a gun?
This is not any kind of judgement, I'm really curious.
the Story was:
Man Shot By Police 'Did Not Open Fire'
9:13pm UK, Tuesday August 09, 2011
The victim of a police shooting did not fire at officers before he was killed, according to a report by the Independent Police Complaints Commission.
An IPCC ballistics report said there was "no evidence" that a handgun found near where Mark Duggan was shot by armed officers had been used.
The 29-year-old died after a gunshot to the chest on Thursday. The death sparked the first night of rioting in London in Tottenham.
His family issued a statement saying: "We feel completely gutted. Someone must be made accountable for this. We can't believe that they can do this.
"In this day and age, this is completely unacceptable. We are very, very angry and we want answers now from the police."
Mr Duggan had been a passenger in a silver Toyota Estima minicab in Ferry Lane, close to Tottenham Hale Tube station, which was believed to have been stopped by police.
His death came after two shots were fired by a Scotland Yard CO19 firearms officer, investigations show.
The initial results confirmed reports that a bullet found lodged in a police radio at the scene was police issue.
Forensic officers told the IPCC that it may not be possible to "say for certain" whether the handgun found near Mr Duggan was fired.
But an IPCC statement said: "At this stage there is no evidence that the handgun found at the scene was fired during the incident."
Can anyone clear this up for me please?
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