Originally Posted by Quentin

How is it that ICM can take unilateral action with respect to performer names, but ICM cannot take unilateral action with respect to existing marks and names other than performer names?

You mention the possibility that the registrant of XBIZ.xxx "may have some legitimate rights in the name;" is it inconceivable that an individual or company other than the performer himself/herself might have some legitimate rights to those names?

How can you have it both ways?

In some instances, stage names of a given performer might actually be the registered trademark of a third-party, btw. Was any consideration given to that possibility when ICM created the performer program?