Quote:
Originally Posted by Barry-xlovecam
I declare and pay a 6% State Use (Sales) Tax on goods only (services are not taxable) on my out of state and foreign purchases. That is the law here. So, why is that silly?
I would be a tax evader if my taxes were not collected at the source and remitted to my State's government by a out-of-state or a foreign seller?
By your logic everywhere should have a regressive tax law equivalent to yours to level your playing field.
Any duties or taxes in international trade are the responsibility of the buyer.
If you want to change the way taxes are paid within the EU boundary that is an EU prerogative.
You can't have your cake and eat it too ... |
You talked something about relying to loyal willing, etc. I thought you meant volantarily tax. And by the way, how do you pay taxes for your out of state and foreign purchases? I mean, what is the process?
Regressive tax law? I don't get from where you got that. At least VAT in here is solid percentage, not regressive. About taxes in international trade, etc., it is all about what kind of treaty there is. US government has made treaty with EU regarding this VAT issue and regarding multiple other issues. If you have some issues with this in general, maybe you should turn to your own government.