Is replacing someones code with yours through spyware illegal? - GoFuckYourself.com

Dirty F · 10-10-2006, 09:28 AM

Just wondering.

jimthefiend · 10-10-2006, 09:29 AM

Prolly. I would only do it to Will.

fallenmuffin · 10-10-2006, 09:32 AM

Unmoral but I don't think it's illegal. It's not spam so it doesn't fall under that and it doesn't collect any data or transmit data so it doesn't follow under identity theft (i.e. it's not harvesting your cc info). So iuno but I would lean towards no...

SmokeyTheBear · 10-10-2006, 09:37 AM

yes . the legal term is "Trespass to chattels"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trespass_to_chattels

SmokeyTheBear · 10-10-2006, 09:38 AM

a) Lack of consent
A vendor can attempt to dispute a trespass claim on the grounds that the user consented to the terms of the contract. Even if consent was given for certain access, a user may still have a valid trespass to chattels complaint if the vendor has exceeded the contractual terms, if the contract is found to misrepresent the actual functioning of the product, or if the consent has been withdrawn. A vendor can be held liable for “any use exceeding the consent” given.” (Restatement (Second) of Torts § 256)

b) Actual harm
The precise criteria for ascertaining actual harm varies among states, in California, for instance, an electronic message can be deemed a trespass where the message interferes with the target computer’s operation, as long as a plaintiff can demonstrate either actual hardware damage or actual impaired functioning (see: Intel v. Hamidi, 30 Cal.4th 1342 (2003)). But the general concept of requiring impaired computer functioning has been adopted consistently and in showing impaired computer functioning, courts have usually emphasized system unavailability.

c) Intentionality
In clarifying the meaning of intentionality in the context of a trespass to chattels claim, § 217 of the Restatement (Second) of Torts states that “intention is present when an act is done for the purpose of using or otherwise intermeddling with a chattel or with knowledge that such an intermeddling will, to a substantial certainty, result from the act,” and that, furthermore, “[i]t is not necessary that the actor should know or have reason to know that such intermeddling is a violation of the possessory rights of another.”

Damages from a trespass claim are limited to the actual harm sustained by the plaintiff (which can include economic loss consequent on the trespass - e.g. loss of profit on a damaged chattel). In cases of dispossession, the plaintiff is always entitled to damages if they can prove the dispossession occurred, even if no quantifiable harm can be proven.

mortenb · 10-10-2006, 09:49 AM

Sorry, but what does "chattel" mean?

fallenmuffin · 10-10-2006, 09:52 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by mortenb

Sorry, but what does "chattel" mean?

Personal property is a type of property. In the common law systems personal property may also be called chattels.

mortenb · 10-10-2006, 09:59 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by fallenmuffin

Personal property is a type of property. In the common law systems personal property may also be called chattels.

Thank you

Deej · 10-10-2006, 10:04 AM

SmokeyTheBear = GFYCIA

CaptainHowdy · 10-10-2006, 10:06 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Deej

SmokeyTheBear = GFYCIA

!! I LOVE YOU SMOKEY

!!

mike217 · 10-10-2006, 10:37 AM

Awesome post Smokey. Keep putting those fires out!

Missie · 10-10-2006, 10:45 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by SmokeyTheBear

a) Lack of consent
A vendor can attempt to dispute a trespass claim on the grounds that the user consented to the terms of the contract. Even if consent was given for certain access, a user may still have a valid trespass to chattels complaint if the vendor has exceeded the contractual terms, if the contract is found to misrepresent the actual functioning of the product, or if the consent has been withdrawn. A vendor can be held liable for ?any use exceeding the consent? given.? (Restatement (Second) of Torts § 256)

b) Actual harm
The precise criteria for ascertaining actual harm varies among states, in California, for instance, an electronic message can be deemed a trespass where the message interferes with the target computer?s operation, as long as a plaintiff can demonstrate either actual hardware damage or actual impaired functioning (see: Intel v. Hamidi, 30 Cal.4th 1342 (2003)). But the general concept of requiring impaired computer functioning has been adopted consistently and in showing impaired computer functioning, courts have usually emphasized system unavailability.

c) Intentionality
In clarifying the meaning of intentionality in the context of a trespass to chattels claim, § 217 of the Restatement (Second) of Torts states that ?intention is present when an act is done for the purpose of using or otherwise intermeddling with a chattel or with knowledge that such an intermeddling will, to a substantial certainty, result from the act,? and that, furthermore, ?[i]t is not necessary that the actor should know or have reason to know that such intermeddling is a violation of the possessory rights of another.?

Damages from a trespass claim are limited to the actual harm sustained by the plaintiff (which can include economic loss consequent on the trespass - e.g. loss of profit on a damaged chattel). In cases of dispossession, the plaintiff is always entitled to damages if they can prove the dispossession occurred, even if no quantifiable harm can be proven.

GREAT POST! Wonderful information here! Gonna have to print a few TOS/screenshots and ask for legal opinion on this. I especially like the bold parts.

Missie

10-10-2006, 09:28 AM	#1
Dirty F Too lazy to set a custom title Industry Role: Join Date: Jul 2001 Posts: 59,204	Is replacing someones code with yours through spyware illegal? Just wondering.

10-10-2006, 09:37 AM	#4
SmokeyTheBear ►SouthOfHeaven Join Date: Jun 2004 Location: PlanetEarth MyBoardRank: GerbilMaster My-Penis-Size: extralarge MyWeapon: Computer Posts: 28,609	yes . the legal term is "Trespass to chattels" http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trespass_to_chattels __________________ hatisblack at yahoo.com

10-10-2006, 09:38 AM	#5
SmokeyTheBear ►SouthOfHeaven Join Date: Jun 2004 Location: PlanetEarth MyBoardRank: GerbilMaster My-Penis-Size: extralarge MyWeapon: Computer Posts: 28,609	a) Lack of consent A vendor can attempt to dispute a trespass claim on the grounds that the user consented to the terms of the contract. Even if consent was given for certain access, a user may still have a valid trespass to chattels complaint if the vendor has exceeded the contractual terms, if the contract is found to misrepresent the actual functioning of the product, or if the consent has been withdrawn. A vendor can be held liable for “any use exceeding the consent” given.” (Restatement (Second) of Torts § 256) b) Actual harm The precise criteria for ascertaining actual harm varies among states, in California, for instance, an electronic message can be deemed a trespass where the message interferes with the target computer’s operation, as long as a plaintiff can demonstrate either actual hardware damage or actual impaired functioning (see: Intel v. Hamidi, 30 Cal.4th 1342 (2003)). But the general concept of requiring impaired computer functioning has been adopted consistently and in showing impaired computer functioning, courts have usually emphasized system unavailability. c) Intentionality In clarifying the meaning of intentionality in the context of a trespass to chattels claim, § 217 of the Restatement (Second) of Torts states that “intention is present when an act is done for the purpose of using or otherwise intermeddling with a chattel or with knowledge that such an intermeddling will, to a substantial certainty, result from the act,” and that, furthermore, “[i]t is not necessary that the actor should know or have reason to know that such intermeddling is a violation of the possessory rights of another.” Damages from a trespass claim are limited to the actual harm sustained by the plaintiff (which can include economic loss consequent on the trespass - e.g. loss of profit on a damaged chattel). In cases of dispossession, the plaintiff is always entitled to damages if they can prove the dispossession occurred, even if no quantifiable harm can be proven. __________________ hatisblack at yahoo.com

10-10-2006, 10:04 AM	#9
Deej I make pixels work Industry Role: Join Date: Jun 2005 Location: I live here... Posts: 24,386	SmokeyTheBear = GFYCIA __________________ Deej's Designs n' What Not Hit me up for Design, CSS & Photo Retouching Icq#30096880

10-10-2006, 09:29 AM	#2
jimthefiend So Fucking Banned Join Date: Oct 2003 Location: icq: 121189 Posts: 18,889	Prolly. I would only do it to Will.

10-10-2006, 09:32 AM	#3
fallenmuffin Confirmed User Industry Role: Join Date: Nov 2005 Posts: 8,170	Unmoral but I don't think it's illegal. It's not spam so it doesn't fall under that and it doesn't collect any data or transmit data so it doesn't follow under identity theft (i.e. it's not harvesting your cc info). So iuno but I would lean towards no...

10-10-2006, 09:49 AM	#6
mortenb Confirmed User Join Date: Jul 2004 Location: Denmark ICQ: 7880009 Posts: 2,203	Sorry, but what does "chattel" mean?

10-10-2006, 10:37 AM	#11
mike217 Confirmed User Join Date: Jul 2006 Posts: 448	Awesome post Smokey. Keep putting those fires out!